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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 05:18

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Two of my family members have recently converted to Islam and have brought shame on my family. How do I get them back into the fold of Hinduism?

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What measures are shipping companies taking to navigate around conflict zones like the Red Sea and Black Sea?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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What's (not “whats”) the rule?